DBMS
1
1. The level of data abstraction which describes how the data is actually stored is?
[A] Physical level
[B] Conceptual level
[C] Storage Level
[D] File level
Answer: Option [A]
2. The level of abstraction describes only part of the entire database is called?
[A] Conceptual level
[B] View Level
[C] Procedural Level
[D] None of above
Answer: Option [B]
3. Object based data models are used in describing the abstraction of the following levels?
[A] Conceptual and view
[B] Only physical
[C] Physical and conceptual
[D] Only conceptual
Answer: Option [A]
4. An association of several structure of a data base can be expressed graphically by?
[A] Tuple
[B] Record
[C] Relationship
[D] Field
Answer: Option [C]
DBMS
2
5. The overall logical structure of data base can be expressed graphically by?
[A] Data flow chart
[B] Flow chart
[C] Directed Graph
[D] Entity relationship diagram
Answer: Option [D]
6. In an object oriented model, one object can access data of another object by passing?
[A] Instance variable
[B] Variable
[C] Message
[D] Function
Answer: Option [C]
7. The collection of information stored in a database at a particular moment is?
[A] View
[B] Instance
[C] Scheme
[D] None of these
Answer: Option [B]
8. The overall design of a database is called?
[A] Scheme of the database
[B] The screen of database
[C] Structure of the database
[D] View of the database
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS


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9. The ________ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation
or it must be null.
[A] entity integrity rule
[B] referential integrity constraint
[C] action assertion
[D] composite attribute
Answer: Option [A]
10. Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are ________ .
[A] Schema, Base and Table
[B] Key, Base and Table
[C] Base, Table and Schema
[D] Schema, Table and View
Answer: Option [D]
11. Data are ________ in client/server computing.
[A] never sent to the client machine
[B] sent in complete copies for the client to filter and sort
[C] sent only upon the client's request
[D] sent in very large sections to save processing time
Answer: Option [C]
12. Which of the following will NOT eliminates the ambiguities of a null value?
[A] Define the attribute as required
[B] Define subtypes
[C] Define each attribute as having an initial value that is recognized as blank
[D] Define supertypes
Answer: Option [D]
DBMS
4
13. Which of the following statements is not true about two tier client server database architecture?
[A] SQL statements are processed on tier server
[B] SQL statements may be processed on some of the clients
[C] Business logic is mostly processed on clients
[D] Business logic may be processed on the server
Answer: Option [C]
14. The process by which the structure of the database is modified to eliminate hidden dependencies
and replacing groups is _________
[A] Normalization
[B] Indexing
[C] Enforcing referential integrity
[D] Enforcing data integrity
Answer: Option [A]
15. Which one of the following is provided by a data dictionary ?
[A] User data
[B] Database structure data
[C] Sorted data
[D] Functional data
Answer: Option [B]
16. Which one of the following is a direct benefit of databse normalization?
[A] higher query processing efficiency
[B] smaller number of tables
[C] reduced I/O for most queries
[D] reduced data redundancy
Answer: Option [D]
DBMS
5
17. What is the result of the following SQL statement ?
SELECT A.Employee_Name, B.Spouse_Name
FROM Employee A LEFT OUTER JOIN Spouse B
ON A. Employee_ID = B.Employee_ID
[A] A list of employee’s spouses
[B] A list of all employees that have spouses, with spouse names included in the list
[C] A list of all employee’s names, including the name of their spouse if they have one
[D] Two lists : One list of employees, the other of spouses
Answer: Option [C]
18. The ability to modify the conceptual schema without causing any change to the application
program is known as :
[A] Physical data independence
[B] Logical data independence
[C] External data independence
[D] Static data
Answer: Option [B]
19. A field or a combination of fields that has a unique value is called :
[A] Foreign key
[B] Secondary key
[C] Primary key
[D] Alternate key
Answer: Option [C]
20. Referential integrity controls relationships between :
[A] attributes in a table
[B] operations of an object
[C] instances of a class
[D] tables in a database
Answer: Option [D]
DBMS
6
21. What rows will this select statement return ?
SELECT * FROM products WHERE ordernumber > = 1000
[A] All rows in the products table whose order number is greater than or equal to 1000
[B] All rows in the products table whose order number is less than or equal to 1000
[C] The first 1000 rows of the product table
[D] All rows in the products table whose order number is greater than 1000
Answer: Option [A]
22. The concept of data independence is similar to the concept of ?
[A] Data Type
[B] Abstract data type
[C] Consolidation
[D] Isolation
Answer: Option [B]
23. The tables generated on compilation of data definition language are stored in?
[A] Data abstraction
[B] Data dictionary
[C] Data File
[D] Meta data
Answer: Option [B]
24. The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database task is
referred to as ...
[A] QBE
[B] SQL
[C] OLAP
[D] Sequel Server
Answer: Option [B]
DBMS
7
25. How is it possible that both programs and data can be stored on the same floppy disk?
[A] Floppy disks can only store data, not programs
[B] Programs and data are both software, and both can be stored on any memory device
[C] A floppy disk has to be formatted for one or for the other
[D] A floppy disks has two sides, one for data and one for program
Answer: Option [B]
26. A transparent DBMS ?
[A] Keeps its physical structure hidden from users
[B] Keep its logical structure hidden from users
[C] Can not hide sensitive information from users
Answer: Option [A]
27. A trigger is ?
[A]
A statement that is executed automatically by the system as a side effect of modification to the
database -
[B] A statement that enables to start any DBMS
[C]
A statement that is executed by the user when debugging an application program - See more
 [D]
A condition the system tests for the validity of the database user - See more at:
Answer: Option [A]
28. Most popular commersial Database
[A] Oracle
[B] MY SQL
[C] MS Access
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS
8
29. Versatile report generator can provide ?
[A] Columnar totals
[B] Subtotal
[C] Calculation
[D] ALL
Answer: Option [D]
30. Related fields in a database are grouped to form ?
[A] Data Field
[B] Data Record
[C] Menu
[D] Bank
Answer: Option [B]
31. The raw facts and figures are:
[A] Data
[B] Data field
[C] DBMS
[D] DBASE
Answer: Option [A]
32. The ............ operator preserves unmatched rows of the relations being joined.
[A] Inner join
[B] Outer join
[C] union
[D] Union join
Answer: Option [B]
DBMS
9
33. . If an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an attribute of the other composite key, a
normalization called ................ is needed.
[A] DKNF
[B] BCNF
[C] third
[D] fourth
Answer: Option [B]
34. To select all column from the table the syntax is:
[A] select all from table_name
[B] select * from table_name
[C] select from table_name
[D] none
Answer: Option [B]
35. A .................. normal form normalization will be needed where all attributes in a relation tuple
are not functionally dependent only on the key attribute.
[A] first
[B] second
[C] third
[D] fourth
Answer: Option [C]
36. In RDBMS, Data is presented as a collection of ............
[A] Relation
[B] Table
[C] Attribute
[D] Entity
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS
10
37. In the ........... normal form, a composite attribute is converted to individual attributes.
[A] first
[B] Second
[C] third
[D] fourth
Answer: Option [A]
38. The DBMS utility, ...................... allows to reconstruct the correct state of database fromthe
backup and history of transactions.
[A] Bakup
[B] Recovery
[C] Monitering
[D] Data loading
Answer: Option [B]
39. The number of attributes in relation is called as its .....................
[A] Cardinality
[B] Degree
[C] Tuple
[D] Row
Answer: Option [B]
40. DBMS is a collection of ………….. that enables user to create and maintain a database.
[A] Key
[B] Program
[C] Translator
[D] none
Answer: Option [B]
DBMS
11
41. ………………… is a full form of SQL.
[A] Standered Query Language
[B] Structured Query Language
[C] Serial Query Language
[D] None
Answer: Option [B]
42. A logical schema
[A]
is a standard way of organizing information into accessible parts. Read more:
http://www.siteforinfotech.com/2012/12/mcq-of-database-management-systemdbms.html#ixzz2XgBAGr5F
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Facebook
[B]
Describes how data is actually stored on disk. Read more:
http://www.siteforinfotech.com/2012/12/mcq-of-database-management-systemdbms.html#ixzz2XgBCQgkN
Follow us: @siteforinfotech on Twitter | infotechsite on
Facebook
[C] is the entire Database
[D] none
Answer: Option [A]
43. ……………… clause is an additional filter that is applied to the result.
[A] select
[B] Having
[C] order by
[D] Group by
Answer: Option [B]
DBMS
12
44. …………..defines the structure of a relation which consists of a fixed set of attribute-domain
pairs.
[A] Schema
[B] Program
[C] Instance
[D] none
Answer: Option [A]
45. ……………… table store information about database or about the system
[A] SQL
[B] nested
[C] system
[D] none
Answer: Option [C]
46. DFD stands for
[A] Data flow diagram
[B] data field diagram
[C] distribute flow diagram
[D] disk flow diagram
Answer: Option [A]
47. In an ER model, ……………. is described in the database by storing its data.
[A] Entity
[B] Attribute
[C] Relation ship
[D] Notation
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS
13
48. In a relational schema, each tuple is divided into fields called
[A] Relation
[B] Domain
[C] Query
[D] ALL
Answer: Option [B]
49. ............... joins are SQL server default
[A] outer
[B] inner
[C] equi
[D] none
Answer: Option [B]
50. ................. allows individual row operation to be performed on a given result set or on the
generated by a selected by a selected statement.
[A] Procedur
[B] Trigger
[C] Cursor
[D] none
Answer: Option [C]
51. ................. requires that data should be made available to only authorized users.
[A] Security
[B] Data integrity
[C] Privacy
[D] none
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS
14
52. ............. is a special type of stored procedure that is automatically invoked whenever the data
in the table is modified
[A] Procedure
[B] Trigger
[C] cursor
[D] none
Answer: Option [B]
53. Which of the following is not the function of client?
[A] Compile queries
[B] Query optimization
[C] Receive queries
[D] Result formatting and presentation
Answer: Option [B]
54. The ..................... is essentially used to search for patterns in target string.
[A] Like predicate
[B] Null predicate
[C] in predicate
[D] out predicate
Answer: Option [A]
55. The DBMS acts as an interface between what two components of an enterprise-class database
system?
[A] Database application and the database
[B] Data and the database
[C] The user and the database application
[D] Database application and SQL
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS
15
56. Which of the following products was the first to implement true relational algebra in a PC
DBMS?
[A] Oracle
[B] R:base
[C] IDMS
[D] dBase-II
Answer: Option [B]
57. SQL stands for ________ .
[A] Structured Question Language
[B] Structured Query Language
[C] Sequential Question Language
[D] Sequential Query Language
Answer: Option [B]
58. Which of the following SQL statements are helpful in database redesign?
[A] Correlated subqueries only
[B] EXISTS/NOT EXISTS expressions only
[C] Both of the above are helpful
[D] None of the above are helpful.
Answer: Option [C]
59. What SQL command can be used to delete columns from a table?
[A] MODIFY TABLE TableName DROP COLUMN ColumnName
[B] MODIFY TABLE TableName DROP ColumnName
[C] ALTER TABLE TableName DROP COLUMN ColumnName
[D] ALTER TABLE TableName DROP ColumnName
Answer: Option [C]
DBMS
16
60. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if the:
[A] database is structured.
[B] database is well-designed.
[C] database has no data.
[D] database is relatively small.
Answer: Option [C]
61. Which SQL-92 standard SQL command can be used to change a table name?
[A] RENAME TABLE
[B] CHANGE TABLE
[C] ALTER TABLE
[D] None of the above is correct.
Answer: Option [D]
62. The process of reading a database schema and producing a data model from that schema is
known as:
[A] data modeling.
[B] database design.
[C] reverse engineering.
[D] None of the above is correct.
Answer: Option [C]
63. Before any changes to database structure are attempted one should first:
[A] clearly understand the current structure and contents of the database only.
[B] test any changes on a test database only.
[C] create a complete backup of the operational database only.
[D] All of the above should be done.
Answer: Option [D]
DBMS
17
64. Which of the following modifications may not succeed?
[A] Changing a column data type from char to date
[B] Changing a column data type from numeric to char
[C] Both of the above actions should succeed.
[D] Neither of the above actions will succeed.
Answer: Option [A]
65. The EXISTS keyword will be true if:
[A] any row in the subquery meets the condition only.
[B] all rows in the subquery fail the condition only.
[C] both of these two conditions are met.
[D] neither of these two conditions is met.
Answer: Option [A]
66. Changing cardinalities in a database is:
[A] a common database design task.
[B] a rare database design task, but does occur.
[C] a database design task that never occurs.
[D] is impossible to do, so a new database must be constructed and the data moved into it.
Answer: Option [A]
67. The data model that is produced from reverse engineering is:
[A] a conceptual model.
[B] an internal model.
[C] a logical model.
[D] None of the above is correct.
Answer: Option [D]
DBMS
18
68. To drop a column that is used as a foreign key, first:
[A] drop the primary key.
[B] drop the table containing the foreign key..
[C] drop the foreign key constraint.
[D] All of the above must be done.
Answer: Option [C]
69. What SQL command will allow you to change the table STUDENT to add the constraint named
GradeCheck that states that the values of the Grade column must be greater than 0?
[A] ALTER TABLE STUDENT ALTER CONSTRAINT GradeCheck (Grade > 0);
[B] ALTER TABLE STUDENT ADD CONSTRAINT GradeCheck (Grade > 0);
[C] ALTER TABLE STUDENT ADD CONSTRAINT GradeCheck CHECK (Grade > 0);
[D] None of the above is correct.
Answer: Option [C]
70. Which is not true of a correlated subquery?
[A] EXISTS/NOT EXISTS is a form of a correlated subquery.
[B] The processing of the SELECT statements is nested.
[C] They can be used to verify functional dependencies.
[D] They are very similar to a regular subquery.
Answer: Option [D]
71. A tool that can help designers understand the dependencies of database structures is a:
[A] dependency graph.
[B] data model.
[C] graphical display.
[D] None of the above is correct.
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS
19
72. How many copies of the database schema are typically used in the redesign process?
[A] One
[B] Two
[C] three
[D] four
Answer: Option [C]
73. Because of the importance of making data model changes correctly, many professionals are
________ about using an automated process for database redesign.
[A] optimistic
View AnswerReport Discuss in Forum-by Aman
74. The fact that the same operation may apply to two or more classes is called what?
[A] Inheritance
[B] Polymorphism
[C] Encapsulation
[D] Multiple classification
Answer: Option [B]
75. Composition is a stronger form of which of the following?
[A] Aggregation
[B] Encapsulation
[C] Inheritance
[D] All of the above.
Answer: Option [A]
76. An abstract class is which of the following?
[A] A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances.
[B] A class that has no direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances.
[C] A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may not have direct instances.
[D] A class that has no direct instances, but whose descendants may not have direct instances
Answer: Option [B]
DBMS
20
77. The term Complete for a UML has the same meaning as which of the following for an EER
diagram?
[A] Overlapping rule
[B] Disjoint rule
[C] Total specialization rule
[D] Partial specialization rule
Answer: Option [C]
78. A UML diagram includes which of the following?
[A] Class name
[B] List of attributes
[C] List of operations
Answer: Option []
79. An object can have which of the following multiplicities?
[A] Zero
[B] One
[C] More than one
[D] All of the above.
Answer: Option [D]
80. Which of the following statement is true concerning objects and/or classes?
[A] An object is an instance of a class.
[B] A class is an instance of an object.
[C] An object includes encapsulates only data.
[D] A class includes encapsulates only data.
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS
21
81. Which of the following applies to a class rather than an object?
[A] Query
[B] Scope
[C] Update
[D] Constructor
Answer: Option [B]
82. The benefits of object-oriented modeling are which of the following?
[A] The ability to tackle more challenging problems
[B] Reusability of analysis, design, and programming results
[C] Improved communication between users, analysts, etc.
[D] All of the above.
Answer: Option [D]
83. The term Incomplete for a UML has the same meaning as which of the following for an EER
diagram?
[A] Overlapping rule
[B] Disjoint rule
[C] Total specialization rule
[D] Partial specialization rule
Answer: Option [D]
84. A constructor operation does which of the following?
[A] Creates a new instance of a class
[B] Updates an existing instance of a class
[C] Deletes and existing instance of a class
[D] All of the above.
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS
22
85. Which of the following is a technique for hiding the internal implementation details of an
object?
[A] Encapsulation
[B] Polymorphism
[C] Inheritance
[D] All of the above.
Answer: Option [A]
86. Aggregation is which of the following?
[A] Expresses a part-of relationship and is a stronger form of an association relationship.
[B] Expresses a part-of relationship and is a weaker form of an association relationship.
[C] Expresses an is-a relationship and is a stronger form of an association relationship.
[D] Expresses an is-a relationship and is a weaker form of an association relationship.
Answer: Option [A]
87. An intrusion detection system does not perform which of the following?
[A] Tries to identify attempts to hack into a computer system.
[B] May monitor packets passing over the network.
[C] May transmit message packets to the correct destination.
[D] Set up deception systems that attempt to trap hackers.
Answer: Option [C]
88. Features of XML include which of the following?
[A] The tags are used to describe the appearance of the content.
[B] Addresses the structuring and manipulation of the data involved.
[C] Governs the display of information in a Web browser.
[D] All of the above.
Answer: Option [B]
DBMS
23
89. What is Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)?
[A] The protocol to copy files between computers
[B] The transfer protocol to transfer Web pages to a browser
[C] The database access protocol for SQL statements
[D] The hardware/software protocol that limits access to company data
Answer: Option [B]
90. Which of the following is true concerning Web services standards?
[A] Led by only one group.
[B] Helped by cooperation between companies.
[C] Not necessary at this time.
[D] Important so that the web can flourish.
Answer: Option [D
91. Common Gateway Interface (CGI) is which of the following?
[A] An interface that accepts and returns data that may be written in SQL.
[B] An interface that accepts and returns data that may be written in any language that produces an
executable file.
[C] A small program that executes within another application and is stored on the server.
[D] A small program that executes within another application and is stored on the client.
Answer: Option [B]
92. The ---- data base can be a choice for the SFMS use ---
[A] My SQL
[B] Oracle
[C] Both (1) & (2)
[D] D Base
Answer: Option [C]
DBMS
24
93. In SFMS message are ------ with receiving node public key to protect confidentially of massage
while in transit.
[A] hided
[B] Shown
[C] Decrypted
[D] Encrypted
Answer: Option []
94. Various kinds of user in SFMS are namely :
[A] Creator and verifier
[B] Super user
[C] Authorizer
[D] All of above
Answer: Option []

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SSC CGL 2015 Tier I - Results Out

Dear Readers,

SSC has released the result for CGL Tier - I. All the Students can click on the below link to view the result.

Read more: The Cut-off Decided by the SSC is:

SC - 80.25

ST - 74.25

OBC - 89.50

Ex.S - 67.75

OH - 69.00

HH - 20.00

VH - 51.00

UR - 102.25

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WHAT ARE THE MISTAKES YOU SHOULD AVOID:

• Never go with the assumption that you need to  attend all 100 questions.You need to let this 100 question ego of yours' to go, only then you will be able to attend easy questions first.
•  I have seen aspirants wasting time on difficult questions ,even though they are well aware that all questions carry equal marks (difficult or easy).
• The role of this mantra has significantly increased since PRELIMs is just a 60 min test now.

THINGS TO DO:

1.QUANT : 

• SKIP QUESTIONS IN DATA INTERPRETATION IF REQUIRED:There will be 2 DI set ,one will be an easy one and second can be moderate to difficult level.Candidates are advised  to select questions from both DI set. Don't try doing one set of DI completely and leaving other one untouched.Instead select easy questions from both the sets and skip the difficult one.

• Equations: These usually take 1 minute per question and mostly require just practise ,so practise and attempt.

• In mathematical part : decide based on your practise test which are the topics you are strong in like percentage ,allegation or average and attempt those first.

ALSO READ :(Recommended Post)

• Download Short Tricks And Approach For Spotting Errors In Grammar: PDF
• Shortcuts And Tricks To Solve Number Series In Competition Exam In PDF
• How To Solve Reading Comprehension Fast And Easily :Approach (PDF):

2.REASONING:

TOPICS SHOULD DO FIRST:

•   SYLLOGISM(5 MARKS)
•   INEQUALITY(5 MARKS)
•   CODING DECODING(5 MARKS)

FOR PUZZLES AND ARRANGEMENT :If you are strong in arrangement problems try doing them but only after reading the question you should decide whether you would like to attempt this or not ,will it be more time consuming and are you sure that you can crack it based on your previous mock experience else skip it and start finding easy questions like :

Directions problem or blood relation problems(5 marks).

DOWNLOAD EXCELLENT INSIDE/OUTSIDE CIRCULAR ARRANGEMENT PROBLEMS WITH SHORTCUTS/TRICKS IN PDF FROM HERE..


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3. ENGLISH : 

Most aspirants try to attempt all questions  .Avoid this habit,TRY TO GET LESS NEGATIVE MARKS

READING COMPREHENSIONS: If you are finding RC long and have less time ,you can directly attempt   antonyms,synonyms questions to save time and move on.

JUMBLED SENTENCES: Similarly ,you can do the same for the jumbled sentences/parajumbles if you are finding the set difficult just try to find the opening and last sentence and mark the the answer and move on.

SPOTTING ERRORS: For spotting the errors ,try reading sentence in a flow rather then breaking them in parts and reading ,try to read the sentence ignoring the '/' separator in question to find the error .

CLOSE TEST : Try eliminating options and reaching an answer.

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            IBPS CWE PO /MT- V Hall Ticket 2015

We advised all the candidates they must carry their Roll Number of IBPS CWE PO Exam 2015 and an Identity proof on the time they go for exam. Because without the Admit card authority examiner cannot be permit to enter in examination hall. Admit card is out and candidates can download their admit card easily from the below link. The Candidates can download their Hall Ticket of IBPS CWE PO Exam 2015 from the below link :

JUST DOUBLE CLICK TO DOWNLOAD DIRECT LINK

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Instruction to download IBPS CWE PO Admit card 2015:

1. Applied Applicants firstly double click on the above button: you will e redirected to site to download
2. After it search the link of “Careers section” and click on it.
3. Searching the “IBPS PO Admit Card 2015” Link click on it
4. Fill the required details in the forms your “Registration Number” and “Password” and submit it.
5. Then Click to download button of admit card.
6. The Hall Ticket will be shown in your screen.
7. Take a print-out ans save for future use.

IMPORTANT DATES:

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Today we are sharing with you the pdf of the 700 Question Asked in Various Recent Exams (SBI, IBPS RRB, IBPS PO) .These include general awareness questions which have maximum chances to get repeated in the upcoming exam of IBPS ,SSC,RRB AND FCI..

E.g.

•  Currency of Saudi Arabia - Riyal
•  What is ‘C’ in KYC? - Customer
• What is ‘I’ in REIT? - Investment
• What is the Maximum limit of RTGS? - No limit

Please go through the PDF and remember these and try to from question based on these type.

It will be highly beneficial for all IBPS ,FCI,RRB aspirant.

• AUGUST CURRENT AFFAIRS PDF

• • DOWNLOAD QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE TRICKS PDF

  • DOWNLOAD REASONING MATERIAL PDF

  • DOWNLOAD TIME SPEED DISTANCE SHORTCUTS PDF

DON'T LOOSE YOUR MARKS JUST DOWNLOAD YOUR PDF HERE..


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Dear aspirants in order to keep you abreast with all the latest happening of the month OF SEPTEMBER 2015 current affairs ,we are sharing with you all the latest happening of the month up till now with special reference to the following topics which are most important from the view point of IBPS PO,RRB ,SSC-CGL and FCI:

ALSO DOWNLOAD:

• AUGUST CURRENT AFFAIRS PDF

• • DOWNLOAD QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE TRICKS PDF

  • DOWNLOAD REASONING MATERIAL PDF

  • DOWNLOAD TIME SPEED DISTANCE SHORTCUTS PDF

• Economic affairs

• International affairs

• Sports affairs

• Science & Technology affairs 

• Corporate affairs 

• Environment & Ecology affairs.

Remember guys as per experience current affairs should be studied in this  order  to gain more marks with less work for these among the most important topics from where the questions are asked.

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With the special reference to the upcoming exams of IBPS PO,RRB and FCI ,we are sharing with you the most preferred current affairs guide for the month of August 2015.In such exams  special attention must be given to the following:

ALSO DOWNLOAD :

• SEPTEMBER  2015 CURRENT AFFAIRS TILL MID-MONTH

1 .BANKING AND FINANCE (MOST IMP): All the latest happenings along with the new CEO's and latest mergers etc.

For e.g in last year IBPS ,it was asked who was the new CEO of INFOSYS.
Ans: Vishal Sikkha.

2. NEW COMERS WINNING MEDAL AT THE INTERNATIONAL FORUM(SPORTS) like in Billiards etc.

SEE ALSO

1. REASONING SHORTCUT TRICKS
2. APTITUDE SHORTCUTS PART 1
3. APTITUDE SHORTCUTS PART 2
4. ENGLISH SHORTCUT TRICKS PART 1

3. Economics of the country related to budget,GDP and railway.

4 .Dates related to the nearby months :(IMP): In the SSC 2015 ,there was a question on the Yoga Day.

5. Recent survey like 2015 Global Peace Index etc. with special reference to India position.

6. Awards and prize in the field of literature,economics and peace:

7. People in the news: at the international or national level.

We have included all such points in this pdf so feel free to download by just double clicking on the button:


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  Understanding what author want to say

An author writes to share a main idea about a topic.  An author’s main idea is directly related to the author’s purpose.  One of the three following purposes will drive a main idea:  to inform, to entertain, and to persuade.

• To inform – to give information about a subject.  Authors with this purpose wish to provide facts that will explain or teach something to readers.

• To entertain – to amuse and delight/ to appeal to the reader’s senses and imagination.  Authors with this purpose set out to captivate or interest the audience.

Example:  “Yes, I have gained weight. I weighed only 8 pounds when I was born.”

• To persuade – to convince the reader to agree with the author’s point of view on a subject. Authors with this purpose may give facts, but their main goal is to argue or prove a point to readers.

Example:  The death penalty is deeply flawed and should be abolished.

DON'T LOOSE YOUR MARKS JUST DOWNLOAD RC TRICKS/SHORTCUTS IN PDF HERE..


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ALSO READ:

• REASONING SHOTCUTS AND TRICKS PART 2
• 
  
• ENGLISH TRICKS FOR WRITTEN EXAMS OF PLACEMENTDRIVES

NOTE:  An author may have a more specific purpose in mind other than to inform, entertain, or persuade. The following chart shows examples of specific purposes.

 

  

To figure out the author’s purpose, the reader must consider the main idea, thought pattern, and tone.  For example:

Topic Sentence:  Spanking must be avoided as a way to discipline due to its long-term negative effects on the child.

Consider what the author is going to write about spanking.

• Is the author going to discuss the disadvantages of spanking?
• Is the author going to argue against spanking as a means of discipline?
• Is the author going to make fun of those who use spanking as a means of discipline?

The tone words ‘must’ and ‘negative’ indicate the author’s point of view is against spanking.  The phase “long-term effects” indicates that the details will be organized as a list of effects.

We can conclude that the author is going to argue against spanking as a means of discipline.

APTITUDE TRICKS

• PART 1
• PART 2
• PART 3

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                          Few tricks to solve series questions

Despite the fact that it is extremely difficult to lay down all possible combinations of series, still if
you follow few steps, you may solve a series question easily & quickly.

-Step 1: Do a preliminary screening of the series. If it is a simple series, you will be able to solve this
easily.

E.g. 14, 14, 26, 26, 38, 38, 50, ?, ?

Explanation: In this simple addition with repetition series, each number in the series repeats itself, and then increases by 12 to arrive at the next number.


FOR ENGLISH TRICKS PART 1 CLICK HERE

APTITUDE TRICKS

• PART 1
• PART 2
• PART 3

-Step 2: If you fail in preliminary screening then determine the trend of the series. Determine
whether this is increasing or decreasing or alternating

-Step 3: (A) Perform this step only if a series is increasing or decreasing
Use following rules:

-I. If rise is slow or gradual, this type of series is likely to have an additional based increase.
Successive numbers have been found by adding some numbers

-II. If rise is very sharp initially but slows down later on, the series is likely to be formed by
adding squared or cubed numbers.

E.g 5, 6,? , 40, 89, 170, 291.

Explanation: starting with 5, we add  square :+1^2, +3^2, +5^2, +7^2, +9^2.
we get 15.

-III. If the rise of a series is throughout equally sharp, the series is likely to be multiplication
based

E.g.  24, ?,208 , 622, 1864.

We observe that there is sharp rise ,so it can be a multiplication series

208*3=624-2=622.
Also 622*3=1866-2=1864.
So, 24*3=72-2=70 which is our answer.

IV. If the rise is irregular and haphazard, there may be two possibilities. Either there may be a
mix of two series or two different kinds of operations may be going on alternately.

 (The first is very likely when the increase is very irregular: the second is more likely when there
is a pattern, even in the irregularity of the series.)

E.g  8, 43, 11, 41, __, 39, 17
A.  8
B.  14
C.  43
D.  44

Explanation: This is a simple alternating addition and subtraction series. The first series begins with 8 and adds 3; the second begins with 43 and subtracts 2

Step 3: (B) to be performed when series is alternating
If the rise is irregular and haphazard, there may be two possibilities. Either there may be a mix of
two series or two different kinds of operations may be going on alternately.

-(The first is very likely when the increase is very irregular: the second is more likely when there is a pattern, even in the irregularity of the series.)


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                            The Perfect Continuous (Progressive) Tense

The perfect continuous tense are used to express the duration between two actions or events. Often, an expression of time is used with perfect continuous tenses.

   OTHER RECOMMENDED READS AND DOWNLOADS  :

FOR ENGLISH TRICKS PART 1 CLICK HERE

APTITUDE TRICKS

• PART 1
• PART 2
• PART 3

• PRESENT TENSE THROUGH TIME GRAPH(PDF)
• PAST TENSE THROUGH TIME GRAPH(PDF)
• FUTURE TENSE  THROUGH TIME GRAPH (PDF)       

                          Present Perfect Continuous (Progressive)

The present perfect continuous tense is an event in progress, which started in the past and continues to the present. It will probably continue into the future.

Sue has been studying for two hours.
(Sue started studying and continues to
study up to the present. She will
probably continue to study.)




-NOTE: The present perfect continuous tense is normally used with words such as before, when, after, since, by the time, etc.

Examples of present perfect continuous tense:

1. I have been working on the car engine since this morning.
2. Ruth has been babysitting the neighbor’s kids for six hours.

                              Past Perfect Continuous (Progressive)

The past perfect continuous tense is an event that was in progress when another past event occurred.
Study the following formula and timeline for past perfect continuous (progressive):

Sue had been studying for two hours
before her friend arrived.
(Sue had started and finished studying
before her friend arrived.)




NOTE: The past perfect continuous tense is normally used with words such as before, when, after, since, by the time, etc.

Examples of past perfect continuous tense:

1. He had been drinking when the accident occurred.
2. Sarah had been exercising before the surgery.

                          Future Perfect Continuous (Progressive)

The future perfect continuous tense reflects an event that will have happened before another future event occurs.

Sue will have been studying for two hours when her friend arrives. (Sue starts and finishes studying
before her friend arrives. Both actions
are in the future.)




NOTE: The future perfect continuous tense is normally used with words such as before, when, after, since, by the time, etc.

Examples of future perfect continuous tense:
1. Larry will have been exercising for two hours before we go to dinner.
2. My kids will have been playing outside all afternoon by the time night falls.

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