DBMS
1
1. The level of data abstraction which describes how the data is actually stored is?
[A] Physical level
[B] Conceptual level
[C] Storage Level
[D] File level
Answer: Option [A]
2. The level of abstraction describes only part of the entire database is called?
[A] Conceptual level
[B] View Level
[C] Procedural Level
[D] None of above
Answer: Option [B]
3. Object based data models are used in describing the abstraction of the following levels?
[A] Conceptual and view
[B] Only physical
[C] Physical and conceptual
[D] Only conceptual
Answer: Option [A]
4. An association of several structure of a data base can be expressed graphically by?
[A] Tuple
[B] Record
[C] Relationship
[D] Field
Answer: Option [C]
DBMS
2
5. The overall logical structure of data base can be expressed graphically by?
[A] Data flow chart
[B] Flow chart
[C] Directed Graph
[D] Entity relationship diagram
Answer: Option [D]
6. In an object oriented model, one object can access data of another object by passing?
[A] Instance variable
[B] Variable
[C] Message
[D] Function
Answer: Option [C]
7. The collection of information stored in a database at a particular moment is?
[A] View
[B] Instance
[C] Scheme
[D] None of these
Answer: Option [B]
8. The overall design of a database is called?
[A] Scheme of the database
[B] The screen of database
[C] Structure of the database
[D] View of the database
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS
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3
9. The ________ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation
or it must be null.
[A] entity integrity rule
[B] referential integrity constraint
[C] action assertion
[D] composite attribute
Answer: Option [A]
10. Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are ________ .
[A] Schema, Base and Table
[B] Key, Base and Table
[C] Base, Table and Schema
[D] Schema, Table and View
Answer: Option [D]
11. Data are ________ in client/server computing.
[A] never sent to the client machine
[B] sent in complete copies for the client to filter and sort
[C] sent only upon the client's request
[D] sent in very large sections to save processing time
Answer: Option [C]
12. Which of the following will NOT eliminates the ambiguities of a null value?
[A] Define the attribute as required
[B] Define subtypes
[C] Define each attribute as having an initial value that is recognized as blank
[D] Define supertypes
Answer: Option [D]
DBMS
4
13. Which of the following statements is not true about two tier client server database architecture?
[A] SQL statements are processed on tier server
[B] SQL statements may be processed on some of the clients
[C] Business logic is mostly processed on clients
[D] Business logic may be processed on the server
Answer: Option [C]
14. The process by which the structure of the database is modified to eliminate hidden dependencies
and replacing groups is _________
[A] Normalization
[B] Indexing
[C] Enforcing referential integrity
[D] Enforcing data integrity
Answer: Option [A]
15. Which one of the following is provided by a data dictionary ?
[A] User data
[B] Database structure data
[C] Sorted data
[D] Functional data
Answer: Option [B]
16. Which one of the following is a direct benefit of databse normalization?
[A] higher query processing efficiency
[B] smaller number of tables
[C] reduced I/O for most queries
[D] reduced data redundancy
Answer: Option [D]
DBMS
5
17. What is the result of the following SQL statement ?
SELECT A.Employee_Name, B.Spouse_Name
FROM Employee A LEFT OUTER JOIN Spouse B
ON A. Employee_ID = B.Employee_ID
[A] A list of employee’s spouses
[B] A list of all employees that have spouses, with spouse names included in the list
[C] A list of all employee’s names, including the name of their spouse if they have one
[D] Two lists : One list of employees, the other of spouses
Answer: Option [C]
18. The ability to modify the conceptual schema without causing any change to the application
program is known as :
[A] Physical data independence
[B] Logical data independence
[C] External data independence
[D] Static data
Answer: Option [B]
19. A field or a combination of fields that has a unique value is called :
[A] Foreign key
[B] Secondary key
[C] Primary key
[D] Alternate key
Answer: Option [C]
20. Referential integrity controls relationships between :
[A] attributes in a table
[B] operations of an object
[C] instances of a class
[D] tables in a database
Answer: Option [D]
DBMS
6
21. What rows will this select statement return ?
SELECT * FROM products WHERE ordernumber > = 1000
[A] All rows in the products table whose order number is greater than or equal to 1000
[B] All rows in the products table whose order number is less than or equal to 1000
[C] The first 1000 rows of the product table
[D] All rows in the products table whose order number is greater than 1000
Answer: Option [A]
22. The concept of data independence is similar to the concept of ?
[A] Data Type
[B] Abstract data type
[C] Consolidation
[D] Isolation
Answer: Option [B]
23. The tables generated on compilation of data definition language are stored in?
[A] Data abstraction
[B] Data dictionary
[C] Data File
[D] Meta data
Answer: Option [B]
24. The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database task is
referred to as ...
[A] QBE
[B] SQL
[C] OLAP
[D] Sequel Server
Answer: Option [B]
DBMS
7
25. How is it possible that both programs and data can be stored on the same floppy disk?
[A] Floppy disks can only store data, not programs
[B] Programs and data are both software, and both can be stored on any memory device
[C] A floppy disk has to be formatted for one or for the other
[D] A floppy disks has two sides, one for data and one for program
Answer: Option [B]
26. A transparent DBMS ?
[A] Keeps its physical structure hidden from users
[B] Keep its logical structure hidden from users
[C] Can not hide sensitive information from users
Answer: Option [A]
27. A trigger is ?
[A]
A statement that is executed automatically by the system as a side effect of modification to the
database -
[B] A statement that enables to start any DBMS
[C]
A statement that is executed by the user when debugging an application program - See more
[D]
A condition the system tests for the validity of the database user - See more at:
Answer: Option [A]
28. Most popular commersial Database
[A] Oracle
[B] MY SQL
[C] MS Access
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS
8
29. Versatile report generator can provide ?
[A] Columnar totals
[B] Subtotal
[C] Calculation
[D] ALL
Answer: Option [D]
30. Related fields in a database are grouped to form ?
[A] Data Field
[B] Data Record
[C] Menu
[D] Bank
Answer: Option [B]
31. The raw facts and figures are:
[A] Data
[B] Data field
[C] DBMS
[D] DBASE
Answer: Option [A]
32. The ............ operator preserves unmatched rows of the relations being joined.
[A] Inner join
[B] Outer join
[C] union
[D] Union join
Answer: Option [B]
DBMS
9
33. . If an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an attribute of the other composite key, a
normalization called ................ is needed.
[A] DKNF
[B] BCNF
[C] third
[D] fourth
Answer: Option [B]
34. To select all column from the table the syntax is:
[A] select all from table_name
[B] select * from table_name
[C] select from table_name
[D] none
Answer: Option [B]
35. A .................. normal form normalization will be needed where all attributes in a relation tuple
are not functionally dependent only on the key attribute.
[A] first
[B] second
[C] third
[D] fourth
Answer: Option [C]
36. In RDBMS, Data is presented as a collection of ............
[A] Relation
[B] Table
[C] Attribute
[D] Entity
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS
10
37. In the ........... normal form, a composite attribute is converted to individual attributes.
[A] first
[B] Second
[C] third
[D] fourth
Answer: Option [A]
38. The DBMS utility, ...................... allows to reconstruct the correct state of database fromthe
backup and history of transactions.
[A] Bakup
[B] Recovery
[C] Monitering
[D] Data loading
Answer: Option [B]
39. The number of attributes in relation is called as its .....................
[A] Cardinality
[B] Degree
[C] Tuple
[D] Row
Answer: Option [B]
40. DBMS is a collection of ………….. that enables user to create and maintain a database.
[A] Key
[B] Program
[C] Translator
[D] none
Answer: Option [B]
DBMS
11
41. ………………… is a full form of SQL.
[A] Standered Query Language
[B] Structured Query Language
[C] Serial Query Language
[D] None
Answer: Option [B]
42. A logical schema
[A]
is a standard way of organizing information into accessible parts. Read more:
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Facebook
[B]
Describes how data is actually stored on disk. Read more:
http://www.siteforinfotech.com/2012/12/mcq-of-database-management-systemdbms.html#ixzz2XgBCQgkN
Follow us: @siteforinfotech on Twitter | infotechsite on
Facebook
[C] is the entire Database
[D] none
Answer: Option [A]
43. ……………… clause is an additional filter that is applied to the result.
[A] select
[B] Having
[C] order by
[D] Group by
Answer: Option [B]
DBMS
12
44. …………..defines the structure of a relation which consists of a fixed set of attribute-domain
pairs.
[A] Schema
[B] Program
[C] Instance
[D] none
Answer: Option [A]
45. ……………… table store information about database or about the system
[A] SQL
[B] nested
[C] system
[D] none
Answer: Option [C]
46. DFD stands for
[A] Data flow diagram
[B] data field diagram
[C] distribute flow diagram
[D] disk flow diagram
Answer: Option [A]
47. In an ER model, ……………. is described in the database by storing its data.
[A] Entity
[B] Attribute
[C] Relation ship
[D] Notation
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS
13
48. In a relational schema, each tuple is divided into fields called
[A] Relation
[B] Domain
[C] Query
[D] ALL
Answer: Option [B]
49. ............... joins are SQL server default
[A] outer
[B] inner
[C] equi
[D] none
Answer: Option [B]
50. ................. allows individual row operation to be performed on a given result set or on the
generated by a selected by a selected statement.
[A] Procedur
[B] Trigger
[C] Cursor
[D] none
Answer: Option [C]
51. ................. requires that data should be made available to only authorized users.
[A] Security
[B] Data integrity
[C] Privacy
[D] none
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS
14
52. ............. is a special type of stored procedure that is automatically invoked whenever the data
in the table is modified
[A] Procedure
[B] Trigger
[C] cursor
[D] none
Answer: Option [B]
53. Which of the following is not the function of client?
[A] Compile queries
[B] Query optimization
[C] Receive queries
[D] Result formatting and presentation
Answer: Option [B]
54. The ..................... is essentially used to search for patterns in target string.
[A] Like predicate
[B] Null predicate
[C] in predicate
[D] out predicate
Answer: Option [A]
55. The DBMS acts as an interface between what two components of an enterprise-class database
system?
[A] Database application and the database
[B] Data and the database
[C] The user and the database application
[D] Database application and SQL
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS
15
56. Which of the following products was the first to implement true relational algebra in a PC
DBMS?
[A] Oracle
[B] R:base
[C] IDMS
[D] dBase-II
Answer: Option [B]
57. SQL stands for ________ .
[A] Structured Question Language
[B] Structured Query Language
[C] Sequential Question Language
[D] Sequential Query Language
Answer: Option [B]
58. Which of the following SQL statements are helpful in database redesign?
[A] Correlated subqueries only
[B] EXISTS/NOT EXISTS expressions only
[C] Both of the above are helpful
[D] None of the above are helpful.
Answer: Option [C]
59. What SQL command can be used to delete columns from a table?
[A] MODIFY TABLE TableName DROP COLUMN ColumnName
[B] MODIFY TABLE TableName DROP ColumnName
[C] ALTER TABLE TableName DROP COLUMN ColumnName
[D] ALTER TABLE TableName DROP ColumnName
Answer: Option [C]
DBMS
16
60. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if the:
[A] database is structured.
[B] database is well-designed.
[C] database has no data.
[D] database is relatively small.
Answer: Option [C]
61. Which SQL-92 standard SQL command can be used to change a table name?
[A] RENAME TABLE
[B] CHANGE TABLE
[C] ALTER TABLE
[D] None of the above is correct.
Answer: Option [D]
62. The process of reading a database schema and producing a data model from that schema is
known as:
[A] data modeling.
[B] database design.
[C] reverse engineering.
[D] None of the above is correct.
Answer: Option [C]
63. Before any changes to database structure are attempted one should first:
[A] clearly understand the current structure and contents of the database only.
[B] test any changes on a test database only.
[C] create a complete backup of the operational database only.
[D] All of the above should be done.
Answer: Option [D]
DBMS
17
64. Which of the following modifications may not succeed?
[A] Changing a column data type from char to date
[B] Changing a column data type from numeric to char
[C] Both of the above actions should succeed.
[D] Neither of the above actions will succeed.
Answer: Option [A]
65. The EXISTS keyword will be true if:
[A] any row in the subquery meets the condition only.
[B] all rows in the subquery fail the condition only.
[C] both of these two conditions are met.
[D] neither of these two conditions is met.
Answer: Option [A]
66. Changing cardinalities in a database is:
[A] a common database design task.
[B] a rare database design task, but does occur.
[C] a database design task that never occurs.
[D] is impossible to do, so a new database must be constructed and the data moved into it.
Answer: Option [A]
67. The data model that is produced from reverse engineering is:
[A] a conceptual model.
[B] an internal model.
[C] a logical model.
[D] None of the above is correct.
Answer: Option [D]
DBMS
18
68. To drop a column that is used as a foreign key, first:
[A] drop the primary key.
[B] drop the table containing the foreign key..
[C] drop the foreign key constraint.
[D] All of the above must be done.
Answer: Option [C]
69. What SQL command will allow you to change the table STUDENT to add the constraint named
GradeCheck that states that the values of the Grade column must be greater than 0?
[A] ALTER TABLE STUDENT ALTER CONSTRAINT GradeCheck (Grade > 0);
[B] ALTER TABLE STUDENT ADD CONSTRAINT GradeCheck (Grade > 0);
[C] ALTER TABLE STUDENT ADD CONSTRAINT GradeCheck CHECK (Grade > 0);
[D] None of the above is correct.
Answer: Option [C]
70. Which is not true of a correlated subquery?
[A] EXISTS/NOT EXISTS is a form of a correlated subquery.
[B] The processing of the SELECT statements is nested.
[C] They can be used to verify functional dependencies.
[D] They are very similar to a regular subquery.
Answer: Option [D]
71. A tool that can help designers understand the dependencies of database structures is a:
[A] dependency graph.
[B] data model.
[C] graphical display.
[D] None of the above is correct.
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS
19
72. How many copies of the database schema are typically used in the redesign process?
[A] One
[B] Two
[C] three
[D] four
Answer: Option [C]
73. Because of the importance of making data model changes correctly, many professionals are
________ about using an automated process for database redesign.
[A] optimistic
View AnswerReport Discuss in Forum-by Aman
74. The fact that the same operation may apply to two or more classes is called what?
[A] Inheritance
[B] Polymorphism
[C] Encapsulation
[D] Multiple classification
Answer: Option [B]
75. Composition is a stronger form of which of the following?
[A] Aggregation
[B] Encapsulation
[C] Inheritance
[D] All of the above.
Answer: Option [A]
76. An abstract class is which of the following?
[A] A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances.
[B] A class that has no direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances.
[C] A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may not have direct instances.
[D] A class that has no direct instances, but whose descendants may not have direct instances
Answer: Option [B]
DBMS
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77. The term Complete for a UML has the same meaning as which of the following for an EER
diagram?
[A] Overlapping rule
[B] Disjoint rule
[C] Total specialization rule
[D] Partial specialization rule
Answer: Option [C]
78. A UML diagram includes which of the following?
[A] Class name
[B] List of attributes
[C] List of operations
Answer: Option []
79. An object can have which of the following multiplicities?
[A] Zero
[B] One
[C] More than one
[D] All of the above.
Answer: Option [D]
80. Which of the following statement is true concerning objects and/or classes?
[A] An object is an instance of a class.
[B] A class is an instance of an object.
[C] An object includes encapsulates only data.
[D] A class includes encapsulates only data.
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS
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81. Which of the following applies to a class rather than an object?
[A] Query
[B] Scope
[C] Update
[D] Constructor
Answer: Option [B]
82. The benefits of object-oriented modeling are which of the following?
[A] The ability to tackle more challenging problems
[B] Reusability of analysis, design, and programming results
[C] Improved communication between users, analysts, etc.
[D] All of the above.
Answer: Option [D]
83. The term Incomplete for a UML has the same meaning as which of the following for an EER
diagram?
[A] Overlapping rule
[B] Disjoint rule
[C] Total specialization rule
[D] Partial specialization rule
Answer: Option [D]
84. A constructor operation does which of the following?
[A] Creates a new instance of a class
[B] Updates an existing instance of a class
[C] Deletes and existing instance of a class
[D] All of the above.
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS
22
85. Which of the following is a technique for hiding the internal implementation details of an
object?
[A] Encapsulation
[B] Polymorphism
[C] Inheritance
[D] All of the above.
Answer: Option [A]
86. Aggregation is which of the following?
[A] Expresses a part-of relationship and is a stronger form of an association relationship.
[B] Expresses a part-of relationship and is a weaker form of an association relationship.
[C] Expresses an is-a relationship and is a stronger form of an association relationship.
[D] Expresses an is-a relationship and is a weaker form of an association relationship.
Answer: Option [A]
87. An intrusion detection system does not perform which of the following?
[A] Tries to identify attempts to hack into a computer system.
[B] May monitor packets passing over the network.
[C] May transmit message packets to the correct destination.
[D] Set up deception systems that attempt to trap hackers.
Answer: Option [C]
88. Features of XML include which of the following?
[A] The tags are used to describe the appearance of the content.
[B] Addresses the structuring and manipulation of the data involved.
[C] Governs the display of information in a Web browser.
[D] All of the above.
Answer: Option [B]
DBMS
23
89. What is Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)?
[A] The protocol to copy files between computers
[B] The transfer protocol to transfer Web pages to a browser
[C] The database access protocol for SQL statements
[D] The hardware/software protocol that limits access to company data
Answer: Option [B]
90. Which of the following is true concerning Web services standards?
[A] Led by only one group.
[B] Helped by cooperation between companies.
[C] Not necessary at this time.
[D] Important so that the web can flourish.
Answer: Option [D
91. Common Gateway Interface (CGI) is which of the following?
[A] An interface that accepts and returns data that may be written in SQL.
[B] An interface that accepts and returns data that may be written in any language that produces an
executable file.
[C] A small program that executes within another application and is stored on the server.
[D] A small program that executes within another application and is stored on the client.
Answer: Option [B]
92. The ---- data base can be a choice for the SFMS use ---
[A] My SQL
[B] Oracle
[C] Both (1) & (2)
[D] D Base
Answer: Option [C]
DBMS
24
93. In SFMS message are ------ with receiving node public key to protect confidentially of massage
while in transit.
[A] hided
[B] Shown
[C] Decrypted
[D] Encrypted
Answer: Option []
94. Various kinds of user in SFMS are namely :
[A] Creator and verifier
[B] Super user
[C] Authorizer
[D] All of above
Answer: Option []
1
1. The level of data abstraction which describes how the data is actually stored is?
[A] Physical level
[B] Conceptual level
[C] Storage Level
[D] File level
Answer: Option [A]
2. The level of abstraction describes only part of the entire database is called?
[A] Conceptual level
[B] View Level
[C] Procedural Level
[D] None of above
Answer: Option [B]
3. Object based data models are used in describing the abstraction of the following levels?
[A] Conceptual and view
[B] Only physical
[C] Physical and conceptual
[D] Only conceptual
Answer: Option [A]
4. An association of several structure of a data base can be expressed graphically by?
[A] Tuple
[B] Record
[C] Relationship
[D] Field
Answer: Option [C]
DBMS
2
5. The overall logical structure of data base can be expressed graphically by?
[A] Data flow chart
[B] Flow chart
[C] Directed Graph
[D] Entity relationship diagram
Answer: Option [D]
6. In an object oriented model, one object can access data of another object by passing?
[A] Instance variable
[B] Variable
[C] Message
[D] Function
Answer: Option [C]
7. The collection of information stored in a database at a particular moment is?
[A] View
[B] Instance
[C] Scheme
[D] None of these
Answer: Option [B]
8. The overall design of a database is called?
[A] Scheme of the database
[B] The screen of database
[C] Structure of the database
[D] View of the database
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS
DON'T LOOSE YOUR MARKS JUST DOWNLOAD YOUR PDF HERE..
DOWNLOAD HERE : Double click to get your pdf file
3
9. The ________ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation
or it must be null.
[A] entity integrity rule
[B] referential integrity constraint
[C] action assertion
[D] composite attribute
Answer: Option [A]
10. Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are ________ .
[A] Schema, Base and Table
[B] Key, Base and Table
[C] Base, Table and Schema
[D] Schema, Table and View
Answer: Option [D]
11. Data are ________ in client/server computing.
[A] never sent to the client machine
[B] sent in complete copies for the client to filter and sort
[C] sent only upon the client's request
[D] sent in very large sections to save processing time
Answer: Option [C]
12. Which of the following will NOT eliminates the ambiguities of a null value?
[A] Define the attribute as required
[B] Define subtypes
[C] Define each attribute as having an initial value that is recognized as blank
[D] Define supertypes
Answer: Option [D]
DBMS
4
13. Which of the following statements is not true about two tier client server database architecture?
[A] SQL statements are processed on tier server
[B] SQL statements may be processed on some of the clients
[C] Business logic is mostly processed on clients
[D] Business logic may be processed on the server
Answer: Option [C]
14. The process by which the structure of the database is modified to eliminate hidden dependencies
and replacing groups is _________
[A] Normalization
[B] Indexing
[C] Enforcing referential integrity
[D] Enforcing data integrity
Answer: Option [A]
15. Which one of the following is provided by a data dictionary ?
[A] User data
[B] Database structure data
[C] Sorted data
[D] Functional data
Answer: Option [B]
16. Which one of the following is a direct benefit of databse normalization?
[A] higher query processing efficiency
[B] smaller number of tables
[C] reduced I/O for most queries
[D] reduced data redundancy
Answer: Option [D]
DBMS
5
17. What is the result of the following SQL statement ?
SELECT A.Employee_Name, B.Spouse_Name
FROM Employee A LEFT OUTER JOIN Spouse B
ON A. Employee_ID = B.Employee_ID
[A] A list of employee’s spouses
[B] A list of all employees that have spouses, with spouse names included in the list
[C] A list of all employee’s names, including the name of their spouse if they have one
[D] Two lists : One list of employees, the other of spouses
Answer: Option [C]
18. The ability to modify the conceptual schema without causing any change to the application
program is known as :
[A] Physical data independence
[B] Logical data independence
[C] External data independence
[D] Static data
Answer: Option [B]
19. A field or a combination of fields that has a unique value is called :
[A] Foreign key
[B] Secondary key
[C] Primary key
[D] Alternate key
Answer: Option [C]
20. Referential integrity controls relationships between :
[A] attributes in a table
[B] operations of an object
[C] instances of a class
[D] tables in a database
Answer: Option [D]
DBMS
6
21. What rows will this select statement return ?
SELECT * FROM products WHERE ordernumber > = 1000
[A] All rows in the products table whose order number is greater than or equal to 1000
[B] All rows in the products table whose order number is less than or equal to 1000
[C] The first 1000 rows of the product table
[D] All rows in the products table whose order number is greater than 1000
Answer: Option [A]
22. The concept of data independence is similar to the concept of ?
[A] Data Type
[B] Abstract data type
[C] Consolidation
[D] Isolation
Answer: Option [B]
23. The tables generated on compilation of data definition language are stored in?
[A] Data abstraction
[B] Data dictionary
[C] Data File
[D] Meta data
Answer: Option [B]
24. The code that relational database management systems use to perform their database task is
referred to as ...
[A] QBE
[B] SQL
[C] OLAP
[D] Sequel Server
Answer: Option [B]
DBMS
7
25. How is it possible that both programs and data can be stored on the same floppy disk?
[A] Floppy disks can only store data, not programs
[B] Programs and data are both software, and both can be stored on any memory device
[C] A floppy disk has to be formatted for one or for the other
[D] A floppy disks has two sides, one for data and one for program
Answer: Option [B]
26. A transparent DBMS ?
[A] Keeps its physical structure hidden from users
[B] Keep its logical structure hidden from users
[C] Can not hide sensitive information from users
Answer: Option [A]
27. A trigger is ?
[A]
A statement that is executed automatically by the system as a side effect of modification to the
database -
[B] A statement that enables to start any DBMS
[C]
A statement that is executed by the user when debugging an application program - See more
[D]
A condition the system tests for the validity of the database user - See more at:
Answer: Option [A]
28. Most popular commersial Database
[A] Oracle
[B] MY SQL
[C] MS Access
Answer: Option [A]
DBMS
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29. Versatile report generator can provide ?
[A] Columnar totals
[B] Subtotal
[C] Calculation
[D] ALL
Answer: Option [D]
30. Related fields in a database are grouped to form ?
[A] Data Field
[B] Data Record
[C] Menu
[D] Bank
Answer: Option [B]
31. The raw facts and figures are:
[A] Data
[B] Data field
[C] DBMS
[D] DBASE
Answer: Option [A]
32. The ............ operator preserves unmatched rows of the relations being joined.
[A] Inner join
[B] Outer join
[C] union
[D] Union join
Answer: Option [B]
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33. . If an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an attribute of the other composite key, a
normalization called ................ is needed.
[A] DKNF
[B] BCNF
[C] third
[D] fourth
Answer: Option [B]
34. To select all column from the table the syntax is:
[A] select all from table_name
[B] select * from table_name
[C] select from table_name
[D] none
Answer: Option [B]
35. A .................. normal form normalization will be needed where all attributes in a relation tuple
are not functionally dependent only on the key attribute.
[A] first
[B] second
[C] third
[D] fourth
Answer: Option [C]
36. In RDBMS, Data is presented as a collection of ............
[A] Relation
[B] Table
[C] Attribute
[D] Entity
Answer: Option [A]
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37. In the ........... normal form, a composite attribute is converted to individual attributes.
[A] first
[B] Second
[C] third
[D] fourth
Answer: Option [A]
38. The DBMS utility, ...................... allows to reconstruct the correct state of database fromthe
backup and history of transactions.
[A] Bakup
[B] Recovery
[C] Monitering
[D] Data loading
Answer: Option [B]
39. The number of attributes in relation is called as its .....................
[A] Cardinality
[B] Degree
[C] Tuple
[D] Row
Answer: Option [B]
40. DBMS is a collection of ………….. that enables user to create and maintain a database.
[A] Key
[B] Program
[C] Translator
[D] none
Answer: Option [B]
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41. ………………… is a full form of SQL.
[A] Standered Query Language
[B] Structured Query Language
[C] Serial Query Language
[D] None
Answer: Option [B]
42. A logical schema
[A]
is a standard way of organizing information into accessible parts. Read more:
http://www.siteforinfotech.com/2012/12/mcq-of-database-management-systemdbms.html#ixzz2XgBAGr5F
Follow us: @siteforinfotech on Twitter | infotechsite on
[B]
Describes how data is actually stored on disk. Read more:
http://www.siteforinfotech.com/2012/12/mcq-of-database-management-systemdbms.html#ixzz2XgBCQgkN
Follow us: @siteforinfotech on Twitter | infotechsite on
[C] is the entire Database
[D] none
Answer: Option [A]
43. ……………… clause is an additional filter that is applied to the result.
[A] select
[B] Having
[C] order by
[D] Group by
Answer: Option [B]
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44. …………..defines the structure of a relation which consists of a fixed set of attribute-domain
pairs.
[A] Schema
[B] Program
[C] Instance
[D] none
Answer: Option [A]
45. ……………… table store information about database or about the system
[A] SQL
[B] nested
[C] system
[D] none
Answer: Option [C]
46. DFD stands for
[A] Data flow diagram
[B] data field diagram
[C] distribute flow diagram
[D] disk flow diagram
Answer: Option [A]
47. In an ER model, ……………. is described in the database by storing its data.
[A] Entity
[B] Attribute
[C] Relation ship
[D] Notation
Answer: Option [A]
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48. In a relational schema, each tuple is divided into fields called
[A] Relation
[B] Domain
[C] Query
[D] ALL
Answer: Option [B]
49. ............... joins are SQL server default
[A] outer
[B] inner
[C] equi
[D] none
Answer: Option [B]
50. ................. allows individual row operation to be performed on a given result set or on the
generated by a selected by a selected statement.
[A] Procedur
[B] Trigger
[C] Cursor
[D] none
Answer: Option [C]
51. ................. requires that data should be made available to only authorized users.
[A] Security
[B] Data integrity
[C] Privacy
[D] none
Answer: Option [A]
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52. ............. is a special type of stored procedure that is automatically invoked whenever the data
in the table is modified
[A] Procedure
[B] Trigger
[C] cursor
[D] none
Answer: Option [B]
53. Which of the following is not the function of client?
[A] Compile queries
[B] Query optimization
[C] Receive queries
[D] Result formatting and presentation
Answer: Option [B]
54. The ..................... is essentially used to search for patterns in target string.
[A] Like predicate
[B] Null predicate
[C] in predicate
[D] out predicate
Answer: Option [A]
55. The DBMS acts as an interface between what two components of an enterprise-class database
system?
[A] Database application and the database
[B] Data and the database
[C] The user and the database application
[D] Database application and SQL
Answer: Option [A]
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56. Which of the following products was the first to implement true relational algebra in a PC
DBMS?
[A] Oracle
[B] R:base
[C] IDMS
[D] dBase-II
Answer: Option [B]
57. SQL stands for ________ .
[A] Structured Question Language
[B] Structured Query Language
[C] Sequential Question Language
[D] Sequential Query Language
Answer: Option [B]
58. Which of the following SQL statements are helpful in database redesign?
[A] Correlated subqueries only
[B] EXISTS/NOT EXISTS expressions only
[C] Both of the above are helpful
[D] None of the above are helpful.
Answer: Option [C]
59. What SQL command can be used to delete columns from a table?
[A] MODIFY TABLE TableName DROP COLUMN ColumnName
[B] MODIFY TABLE TableName DROP ColumnName
[C] ALTER TABLE TableName DROP COLUMN ColumnName
[D] ALTER TABLE TableName DROP ColumnName
Answer: Option [C]
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60. Database redesign is not terribly difficult if the:
[A] database is structured.
[B] database is well-designed.
[C] database has no data.
[D] database is relatively small.
Answer: Option [C]
61. Which SQL-92 standard SQL command can be used to change a table name?
[A] RENAME TABLE
[B] CHANGE TABLE
[C] ALTER TABLE
[D] None of the above is correct.
Answer: Option [D]
62. The process of reading a database schema and producing a data model from that schema is
known as:
[A] data modeling.
[B] database design.
[C] reverse engineering.
[D] None of the above is correct.
Answer: Option [C]
63. Before any changes to database structure are attempted one should first:
[A] clearly understand the current structure and contents of the database only.
[B] test any changes on a test database only.
[C] create a complete backup of the operational database only.
[D] All of the above should be done.
Answer: Option [D]
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64. Which of the following modifications may not succeed?
[A] Changing a column data type from char to date
[B] Changing a column data type from numeric to char
[C] Both of the above actions should succeed.
[D] Neither of the above actions will succeed.
Answer: Option [A]
65. The EXISTS keyword will be true if:
[A] any row in the subquery meets the condition only.
[B] all rows in the subquery fail the condition only.
[C] both of these two conditions are met.
[D] neither of these two conditions is met.
Answer: Option [A]
66. Changing cardinalities in a database is:
[A] a common database design task.
[B] a rare database design task, but does occur.
[C] a database design task that never occurs.
[D] is impossible to do, so a new database must be constructed and the data moved into it.
Answer: Option [A]
67. The data model that is produced from reverse engineering is:
[A] a conceptual model.
[B] an internal model.
[C] a logical model.
[D] None of the above is correct.
Answer: Option [D]
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68. To drop a column that is used as a foreign key, first:
[A] drop the primary key.
[B] drop the table containing the foreign key..
[C] drop the foreign key constraint.
[D] All of the above must be done.
Answer: Option [C]
69. What SQL command will allow you to change the table STUDENT to add the constraint named
GradeCheck that states that the values of the Grade column must be greater than 0?
[A] ALTER TABLE STUDENT ALTER CONSTRAINT GradeCheck (Grade > 0);
[B] ALTER TABLE STUDENT ADD CONSTRAINT GradeCheck (Grade > 0);
[C] ALTER TABLE STUDENT ADD CONSTRAINT GradeCheck CHECK (Grade > 0);
[D] None of the above is correct.
Answer: Option [C]
70. Which is not true of a correlated subquery?
[A] EXISTS/NOT EXISTS is a form of a correlated subquery.
[B] The processing of the SELECT statements is nested.
[C] They can be used to verify functional dependencies.
[D] They are very similar to a regular subquery.
Answer: Option [D]
71. A tool that can help designers understand the dependencies of database structures is a:
[A] dependency graph.
[B] data model.
[C] graphical display.
[D] None of the above is correct.
Answer: Option [A]
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72. How many copies of the database schema are typically used in the redesign process?
[A] One
[B] Two
[C] three
[D] four
Answer: Option [C]
73. Because of the importance of making data model changes correctly, many professionals are
________ about using an automated process for database redesign.
[A] optimistic
View AnswerReport Discuss in Forum-by Aman
74. The fact that the same operation may apply to two or more classes is called what?
[A] Inheritance
[B] Polymorphism
[C] Encapsulation
[D] Multiple classification
Answer: Option [B]
75. Composition is a stronger form of which of the following?
[A] Aggregation
[B] Encapsulation
[C] Inheritance
[D] All of the above.
Answer: Option [A]
76. An abstract class is which of the following?
[A] A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances.
[B] A class that has no direct instances, but whose descendants may have direct instances.
[C] A class that has direct instances, but whose descendants may not have direct instances.
[D] A class that has no direct instances, but whose descendants may not have direct instances
Answer: Option [B]
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77. The term Complete for a UML has the same meaning as which of the following for an EER
diagram?
[A] Overlapping rule
[B] Disjoint rule
[C] Total specialization rule
[D] Partial specialization rule
Answer: Option [C]
78. A UML diagram includes which of the following?
[A] Class name
[B] List of attributes
[C] List of operations
Answer: Option []
79. An object can have which of the following multiplicities?
[A] Zero
[B] One
[C] More than one
[D] All of the above.
Answer: Option [D]
80. Which of the following statement is true concerning objects and/or classes?
[A] An object is an instance of a class.
[B] A class is an instance of an object.
[C] An object includes encapsulates only data.
[D] A class includes encapsulates only data.
Answer: Option [A]
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81. Which of the following applies to a class rather than an object?
[A] Query
[B] Scope
[C] Update
[D] Constructor
Answer: Option [B]
82. The benefits of object-oriented modeling are which of the following?
[A] The ability to tackle more challenging problems
[B] Reusability of analysis, design, and programming results
[C] Improved communication between users, analysts, etc.
[D] All of the above.
Answer: Option [D]
83. The term Incomplete for a UML has the same meaning as which of the following for an EER
diagram?
[A] Overlapping rule
[B] Disjoint rule
[C] Total specialization rule
[D] Partial specialization rule
Answer: Option [D]
84. A constructor operation does which of the following?
[A] Creates a new instance of a class
[B] Updates an existing instance of a class
[C] Deletes and existing instance of a class
[D] All of the above.
Answer: Option [A]
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85. Which of the following is a technique for hiding the internal implementation details of an
object?
[A] Encapsulation
[B] Polymorphism
[C] Inheritance
[D] All of the above.
Answer: Option [A]
86. Aggregation is which of the following?
[A] Expresses a part-of relationship and is a stronger form of an association relationship.
[B] Expresses a part-of relationship and is a weaker form of an association relationship.
[C] Expresses an is-a relationship and is a stronger form of an association relationship.
[D] Expresses an is-a relationship and is a weaker form of an association relationship.
Answer: Option [A]
87. An intrusion detection system does not perform which of the following?
[A] Tries to identify attempts to hack into a computer system.
[B] May monitor packets passing over the network.
[C] May transmit message packets to the correct destination.
[D] Set up deception systems that attempt to trap hackers.
Answer: Option [C]
88. Features of XML include which of the following?
[A] The tags are used to describe the appearance of the content.
[B] Addresses the structuring and manipulation of the data involved.
[C] Governs the display of information in a Web browser.
[D] All of the above.
Answer: Option [B]
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89. What is Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)?
[A] The protocol to copy files between computers
[B] The transfer protocol to transfer Web pages to a browser
[C] The database access protocol for SQL statements
[D] The hardware/software protocol that limits access to company data
Answer: Option [B]
90. Which of the following is true concerning Web services standards?
[A] Led by only one group.
[B] Helped by cooperation between companies.
[C] Not necessary at this time.
[D] Important so that the web can flourish.
Answer: Option [D
91. Common Gateway Interface (CGI) is which of the following?
[A] An interface that accepts and returns data that may be written in SQL.
[B] An interface that accepts and returns data that may be written in any language that produces an
executable file.
[C] A small program that executes within another application and is stored on the server.
[D] A small program that executes within another application and is stored on the client.
Answer: Option [B]
92. The ---- data base can be a choice for the SFMS use ---
[A] My SQL
[B] Oracle
[C] Both (1) & (2)
[D] D Base
Answer: Option [C]
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93. In SFMS message are ------ with receiving node public key to protect confidentially of massage
while in transit.
[A] hided
[B] Shown
[C] Decrypted
[D] Encrypted
Answer: Option []
94. Various kinds of user in SFMS are namely :
[A] Creator and verifier
[B] Super user
[C] Authorizer
[D] All of above
Answer: Option []
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